Inverse Map
QUESTION
Inverse Map
Click to reveal answer ANSWER
Denoted by $f^{-1} : Y \to X$, exists only if $f$ is bijective, and satisfies $x = f^{-1}(y) \iff f(x) = y$.
- *Note*: We distinguish between the inverse relation $f^-$ (exists for any map, $f^-(y) \subset X$) and the inverse map $f^{-1}$ (exists only for bijections, $\{f^{-1}(y)\} = f^-(y)$).
Click to see question - ソースノート: chapter1.md
- カードID: inverse-map
- 状態: active